The Financial Times reported back in July:
Cocaine production in Latin America has quadrupled in the past decade, with criminal networks in Colombia, Peru and Bolivia exploiting global trade routes to shift vast quantities of the drug. Cocaine is also increasingly shipped from Brazil into Europe via west Africa.
The UN warns that supply could soon exceed demand, increasing traffickers’ incentives to dump even more product on to Europe’s streets...
The result is that more cocaine is available in Europe today than in the 1980s — often seen as the drug’s heyday — according to the UN. Last year alone, its residue in city wastewater rose by more than a fifth, according to the EU’s drugs agency...
Lower prices and frictionless dealing on popular encrypted messaging apps have made cocaine more attainable.
My ECONS101 class covered the model of supply and demand last week, and this seems like a good example. The European market for cocaine is shown in the diagram below. The market was initially in equilibrium, where supply S0 meets demand D0. The equilibrium price of cocaine was P0, and the equilibrium quantity traded was Q0. The supply of cocaine has increased (a shift to the right, or down, of the supply curve for cocaine), to S1, due to increased production in Latin America being shipped to Europe. This lowers the equilibrium price of cocaine to P1, and increases the quantity traded to Q1.
However, the increase in cocaine supply hasn't had the same effect everywhere. The FT article also reports that:
One country where the retail price has risen rather than fallen, according to UN data, is the UK, which one former senior European police officer says may be linked either to stronger demand or to traffickers’ perception that it is riskier to smuggle cocaine into the country than elsewhere.
If cocaine traffickers believe that it is riskier to smuggle cocaine into the UK, that would decrease the supply of cocaine, and increase the price (see the diagram above, but with the change in supply reversed). That might also contribute to the increase in supply to Europe, if shipments that previously would have gone to the UK go to continental Europe instead. As for 'stronger demand', that effect is shown in the diagram below. The market was initially in equilibrium, where supply S0 meets demand D0. The equilibrium price of cocaine was P0, and the equilibrium quantity traded was Q0. If supply remained constant, and demand increased (as noted in the FT article), the demand curve shifts to the right (to D1). This increases the equilibrium price of cocaine to P1, and the quantity of cocaine traded to Q1.
The increase in demand could even lead to a price increase even with supply increasing as well. If the supply increased to S1, then the equilibrium price goes back to P0, with the quantity of cocaine traded increasing to Q1.
Combining an increase in demand with an increase in supply is certain to lead to an increase in the equilibrium quantity. However, the change in the equilibrium price is ambiguous. Any smaller increase in supply than shown in the diagram would lead to a net increase in the price of cocaine in the UK, as would any decrease in supply. Any larger increase in supply would lead the equilibrium price to decrease.
Europe is, of course, not the only country dealing with an influx of cocaine. It has also been in the news in New Zealand recently as well. The underlying drivers are very similar, and are a recurring issue (see this post from 2017, related to the US cocaine market).
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