My ECONS101 class covered constrained optimisation last week, and one of the models we looked at was the labour-leisure trade-off for workers. Now artificial intelligence, and in particular generative AI, is likely to have large impacts on the labour-leisure trade-off. As the Financial Times reported last year (paywalled):
The idea that technological progress can enable people to work fewer hours is not outlandish...
But in order to believe a similar trend is going to take hold again, you have to assume three things. First: that AI will deliver a substantial boost to economic productivity...
Second, you have to assume the economic gains will be widely distributed...
Third, you have to believe workers will “cash in” those proceeds in the form of extra leisure, rather than higher income. But will they? In many developed countries, there has been a slowdown in the reduction in working hours in recent decades...
Far from trading income for leisure, it is the people with the highest salaries who tend to work the longest hours.
Will workers trade off higher productivity for more leisure time? Are we about to enter an 'age of leisure'? The constrained optimisation model for the worker (see also this post) can help us clarify the possibilities. In this model, we'll assume that AI increases productivity, and that the increase in productivity is represented by higher wages for workers. [*] The model will then tell us whether workers might respond by consuming more, or less, leisure.
Our model of the worker's decision is outlined in the diagram below. The worker's decision is constrained by the amount of discretionary time available to them. Let's call this their time endowment, E. If they spent every hour of discretionary time on leisure, they would have E hours of leisure, but zero income. That is one end point of the worker's budget constraint, on the x-axis. The x-axis measures leisure time from left to right, but that means that it also measures work time (from right to left, because each one hour less leisure means one hour more of work). The difference between E and the number of leisure hours is the number of work hours. Next, if the worker spent every hour working, they would have zero leisure, but would have an income equal to W0*E (the wage, W0, multiplied by the whole time endowment, E). That is the other end point of the worker's budget constraint, on the y-axis. The worker's budget constraint joins up those two points, and has a slope that is equal to the wage (more correctly, it is equal to -W0, and it is negative because the budget constraint is downward sloping). The slope of the budget constraint represents the opportunity cost of leisure. Every hour the worker spends on leisure, they give up the wage of W0. Now, we represent the worker's preferences over leisure and consumption by indifference curves. The worker is trying to maximise their utility, which means that they are trying to get to the highest possible indifference curve that they can, while remaining within their budget constraint. The highest indifference curve they can reach on our diagram is I0. The worker's optimum is the bundle of leisure and consumption where their highest indifference curve meets the budget constraint. This is the bundle A, which contains leisure of L0 (and work hours equal to [E-L0]), and consumption of C0.
Now, let's say that the situation shown above is the situation before the advent of AI. After AI is introduced, productivity increases, and so wages increase (from W0 to W1). This causes the budget constraint to pivot outwards and become steeper (since the slope of the budget constraint is equal to the wage, the slope has increased from -W0 to -W1). The worker can now reach a higher indifference curve, and it is the position of that higher indifference curve that determines the worker's response in terms of whether they consume more leisure or not. If they move to the higher indifference curve I1, then the worker's new optimum is the bundle of leisure and consumption B, which contains leisure of L1 (and work hours equal to [E-L1]), and consumption of C1. For this worker (whose response is shown in red on the diagram), leisure hours decrease as a result of the higher wage. On the other hand, if they move to the higher indifference curve I2, then the worker's new optimum is the bundle of leisure and consumption C, which contains leisure of L2 (and work hours equal to [E-L2]), and consumption of C2. For this worker (whose response is shown in blue on the diagram), leisure hours increase as a result of the higher wage. [**]
Either of these possibilities could happen. In fact, both could happen, with some workers increasing leisure time and others decreasing leisure time. By itself, this model doesn't answer the question of what will happen, but shows that both increased leisure and decreased leisure are possible outcomes.
The key difference here comes down to the size of the income effect of the increase in wages. When wages increase, the opportunity cost of leisure increases. That makes leisure relatively more expensive, and workers should respond by consuming less leisure. That is what we call the substitution effect - workers substitute away from leisure as it becomes more expensive. However, increased wages also lead to an income effect. Leisure is a normal good, which means that as the worker's income increases, they would like to consume more leisure. Notice that the substitution effect and the income effect are working in opposite directions here. For workers who overall decrease their leisure, the substitution effect (which says they should consume less leisure) must be bigger than the income effect (which says they should consume more leisure). For workers who overall increase their leisure, the reverse is true - the substitution effect must be smaller than the income effect.
AI may lead us into an age of leisure. But only if productivity gains lead to higher wages, and the income effect of higher wages more than offsets the substitution effect.
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[*] The assumption that productivity gains will lead to higher wages is a strong assumption. Indeed, the FT article questions whether this assumption is valid. If productivity gains don't lead to higher wages, then this model doesn't help us evaluate whether we're about to move into an 'age of leisure', and the impacts might be more macroeconomic than microeconomic. That is, we may end up with leisure, but arising through weaker labour demand, reduced hours, or unemployment rather than through workers voluntarily choosing more leisure as wages increase.
[**] Notice that the indifference curves I1 and I2 are crossing, and indifference curves cannot cross. However, those two indifference curves are for different workers, so there is no problem. I could easily have drawn two different diagrams, one for each worker, but I've kept them both on the same diagram for efficiency.


